1. MC cause of diarrhoea in AIDS ? Cryptosporodium
2. MC cause of meningitis in AIDS ? Cryptococcus
3. MC cause of infantile diarrhea ? Rotavirus
4. Micro-organism which require sterol for growth ? Mycoplasma
5. Both intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion bodies are seen in ? Measles
6. Endoscopes are best sterilized by ? 2% Glutaraldehyde/ Cidex
7. Phenol coefficient indicates ? Efficacy of a disinfectant
8. Immunoglobulin involved in anaphylaxis ? igE
9. Earliest Ig synthesized by fetus in response to infection ? igM
10. VR media is used for ? Vibrio cholerae
11. LJ medium is used for culturing ? Mycobacteriumm tuberculosis
12. Culture media used for corynebacterium diphtheria ? Loefller serum slope, Tellurite medium
13. Organism having no cell wall, bounded by membrane containing sterols ? Mycoplasma
14. Paul Bunnel test is done for ? Infectious mononucleosis
15. Example of yeast like fungi ? Candida
16. Southern blot test is done for ? DNA
17. Significant bacteriuria is present if bacterial count in urine is ? 105
18. MC cause of gas gangrene ? Clostridium perfringenes
19. Organism seen in dark ground microscopy ? Spirochaetes
20. Secretory immunoglobulin ? IgA
21. Contact dermatitis is type ? IV hypersensitivity reaction
22. Travellers diarrhoea is caused by ? ETEC
23. MC cause of acute bacterial endocarditis ? Staphylococcus aureus
24. Most immunogenic antigen in typhoid ? H antigen
25. VDRL is a type of ? Slide flocculation test
26. Burkitts lymphoma is caused by ? Epstein Barr virus
27. Schik’s test is type ? I Hypersensitivity reaction
28. Immunoglobulin mediating secondary response ? igG
29. Process of coating of pathogen for efficient phagocytosis is known as ? Opsonization
30. Immunoglobulin present in breast milk ? IgA
31. Immunoglobulin produced after primary immunization ? IgG
32. Immunoglobulin that provides natural passive immunity to newborn ? IgG
33. Transfusion reactions are type ? II hypersensitivity reaction
34. Mantoux test is type ? IV hypersensitivity reaction
35. Dorset egg medium is used for ? Mycobacterium
36. Draughtsman colonies are seen in culture of ? Pneumococcus
37. Tryptophan is an important growth factor for ? Salmonella
38. Virulence of mycobacterium TB depends on ? Cord factor
39. Bacteria, which is known as Eaton agent ? Mycoplasma
40. Metachromatic staining is a feature of ? Corynebacterium diphtheriae
41. Cholera red reaction and Indole formation is shown by ? Vibrio cholerae
42. Motility shown by proteus ? Swarming
43. Typical feature of botulinism ? Symmetric descending paralysis
44. Factor responsible for acid fastness of mycobacterium TB ? Mycolic acid in cell wall
45. Leptospirosis is transmitted by ? Rat urine
46. Sulfur granules in actinomycosis consist of ? Organism
47. Q fever is caused by ? Coxiella burnetti
48. Swine flu was due to ? H1N1 strain
49. Negri bodies are seen in ? Nerve cells
50. Retroviral sequence of HIV virus in host cell ? RNA-DNA-RNA
51. Method of bacterial gene transfer with the involvement of a virus ? Transduction
52. Gram negative anaerobic bacteria uses which method of gene transfer ? Conjugation
53. Enterobius vermicularis commonly resides in which part of GIT ? Appendix and Caecum
54. Molluscum contagiosum is caused by ? Poxvirus
55. Cetrimide agar is used for isolation of which bacteria from feces ? Pseudomonas
56. Oka strain is used for vaccine against ? Varicella
57. A person ate some milk products in a party and presented with vomiting within 6 hours of consumption. Organism responsible ? Staphylococcus
58. Immunoglobulin present in bronchial secretion ? IgA
59. MC cause of common cold/ coryza ? Rhinovirus
60. Duffy antigen is present in which plasmodia ? Vivax
1. URINE, FAECESNormal urine volume in adult? 600 to 2000 ml
2. Urine volume more than 2000 ml/24 hours? Polyuria
3. Some causes of polyuria? Diabetes mellitus, Diabetes insipidusHyperparathyroidism Diuretic phase of ATN
4. Some causes of oliguria? Dehydration, Shock, Obstruction, Ac.Glomerulonephritis
5. Most of the solute in urine is? Urea and NaCI
6. Normal specific gravity in adults? 1.016 to 1.022
7. Methods for urine specific gravity measurement? Refractometer
8. Methods for urine specific gravity measurement?Hydrometer
9. Methods for urine specific gravity measurement?Reagent strip
10. Some conditions for raised specific gravity? Glycosuria, Albuminuria, Oliguria, Hematuria
11. Normal adult urinary pH? 4.6 to 8
12. Yellow color of urine is mainly due to? Pigment urochrome and small amounts of urobilinsand uroerythrin
13. Red or red brown urine is seen in? Hematuria, hemoglobinuria, methhemoglobinuriasome porphyrias, drugs e.g. paraflex, Desferal
14. Yellow brown or green brown urine? Bile pigments, drugs
15. Dark green urine in? Obstructive jaundice
16. Orange-red colored urine? Urinary analgesics (phenazopyridines, rifampicin)
17. Dark brown or black urine? Alkaptonuria (homogentesic acid) and melanin,levodopa
18. Burgundy red colour urine? Porphyrias
19. Blue coloured urine? Methylene blue ingestion
20. Turbid urine that does not clear on heating maybe due to? Hematuria, ? epithelial cells, spermatozoa andprostatic fluid
21. Lipiduria (neutral fats, i.e. triglycerides andcholesterol)?Nephrotic syndrome, Fractures of major bones
22. Chyluria may be due to? Filariasis, abdominal lymphadenopathy and sometumors
23. Nitrogenous substances in urine? Urea uric acid, creatinine, amino acids, ammonia,traces of proteins, glycoproteins, enzymes, purines
24. Hormones normally found in urine? Ketosteroids, estrogen, aldosterone, pituitarygonadotropes, catecholamines and serotoninmetabolites
25. Recent advances in chemical examination of urineis use of?Reagent strips
26. DIAGNOSTIC CARDIOLOGY Normal left ventricular ejection fraction? 0.5 to 0.8
27. DIAGNOSTIC CARDIOLOGY Swan Ganz catheter is used to measure? Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
28. DIAGNOSTIC CARDIOLOGY Normal pulse pressure is? 40 mmHg
29. DIAGNOSTIC CARDIOLOGY Rail road track calcification in X-ray in arteries is seen in? Monckeberg’sarterio sclerosis
30. DIAGNOSTIC CARDIOLOGY ‘String of beads’ appearance in angiography is seen in? Fibromuscular dysplasia
31. ECG Saw tooth waves (most prominent in inferior leads) on ECG are seen in? Atrial flutter
32. ECG Wenkebach’s phenomenon occurs in? Mobitz type I second-degree heart block
33. ECGdegree heart blockoften associated withincreased QRS duration? Mobitz type-II heartblock
34. ECGProlonged HV interval (>100ms)? Infra-Hisal block
35. ECGDouble ‘P’ waves in ECGare seen in patients with? Heart transplant
36. ECGAV nodal conduction isaffected in following MI? Inferior wall
37. ECGMobitz type II heart block isgenerally due to? Disease of the His-Purkinje system
38. Types of Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) include Primary PCI? Performed in AMI without preceeding fibrinolysis
39. Facilitated PCI? GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors plus half the regular dose of fibrinolytics
40. Rescue PCI? Done when medical reperfusion fails
41. Elective PCI? Done on development of recurrent-ischemia
42. GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors include? Abciximab Eptifibatide Tirofiban
43. ECG manifestations of posterior wall AMI? Reciprocal ST depression in V1-3 Tall R in V1-3
44. Acute reperfusion therapy is useful in? STEMI (not in NSTEMI)
45. Myocardial infarction (MI) consists of the following three stages? (1) Acute (first few hours to 7 days), (2) Healing (7 to 28 days), and (3) Healed (29 days and beyond)
46. Positive treadmill test is defined as? Flat ST depression > 0.1 mm below baseline i.e. PR segment, lasting for >0.08 sec
? Within 4-8 hours after onset of MI and returns to normal by 48 to 72 hours
47. In MI creatine kinase level-Blockers are contraindicated in acute coronary syndrome with? A-V Block (IIͦ/IIIͦ), HR
<60 mm, CCF
49. Chest discomfort occurs at rest in? Variant Prinzmetal’s angina and unstable angina
50. Most vulnerable area to IHD is? Subendocardium of left ventricle
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